jueves, 13 de febrero de 2014

SELECTIVIDAD INGLES 2012-2013 - ARE MOBILE PHONES DANGEROUS?

UNIVERSIDADES DE ANDALUCÍA PRUEBA DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD
CURSO 2012-2013
LENGUA EXTRANJERA (INGLÉS)


Instrucciones:
a) Duración: 1 h.30m.
b) No se permite el uso de diccionario.
c) La puntuación de las preguntas está indicada en las mismas.
d) Los alumnos deberán realizar completa una de las dos opciones A o B, sin poder mezclar las respuestas. 

 OPTION A: “Are mobile phones dangerous?” 

Are mobile phones dangerous to your health? It is difficult to know for sure. Some researchers suggest that heavy users of mobile phones are at a greater risk of developing brain tumours. Nevertheless, many other studies suggest there  are no links between cancer and mobile phone use. Over three billion people use mobile phones on a daily basis, and many  talk for more than an hour a day. Mobile phone antennas are similar to microwave ovens. While both rely on electromagnetic radiation, the radio waves in mobile phones are lower in radio frequency (RF). Microwave ovens have enough RF to cook  food and are known to be dangerous to human tissues. However, the concern is that the lower frequency radio waves that 6 mobile phones rely on may also be dangerous.  
Some researchers believe that other types of wireless technology may also be dangerous to human health, including  laptops, cordless phones, and gaming consoles. They say that many cordless phones emit dangerous levels of  Electromagnetic Radiation (ER) even when they are not in use. They even suggest keeping electronic devices, such as computers and alarm clocks, out of bedrooms, or at least 1.8 metres from your pillow. Besides, a growing number of health professionals recommend that children and teens, whose brains are still developing, use mobile phones only for  emergencies. Concerned medical experts use the example of tobacco to illustrate the potential risks. Many years ago,  people smoked freely and were not aware of the effects of cigarettes on their health. Today, people know that cigarettes cause lung cancer, though it is still unknown exactly how or why. Some doctors fear that the same thing will happen with  devices such as mobiles.  

I * COMPREHENSION (4 points: questions 1-3, 1 point each; 4-5, 0.5 points each)
ANSWER QUESTIONS 1-3 ACCORDING TO THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE TEXT. USE YOUR OWN WORDS.
1. According to the article, do mobile phones lead to brain tumours? Explain.
2. Are mobile phones the only devices that can damage our health? Explain
3. Why do some experts think that mobile phones can be harmful to the development of children’s brains?

ARE THESE STATEMENTS TRUE OR FALSE? JUSTIFY YOUR ANSWERS WITH THE PRECISE WORDS OR PHRASES FROM THE TEXT, OR USE YOUR OWN WORDS.
4. Microwave ovens and mobile phones emit similar levels of RF.
5. In the past the negative effects of tobacco were unknown.

II * USE OF ENGLISH (3 points; questions 6-9, 0.25 points each; 10-13, 0.5 points each)
6. FIND IN THE TEXT A SYNONYM FOR “worry” (noun).
7. GIVE AN ADJECTIVE WITH THE SAME ROOT AS “health” (noun).
8. WHICH WORD IS NOT AN ADJECTIVE? dangerous / risky/ scare / unsafe.
9. FIND IN THE TEXT ONE WORD WHICH HAS THE FOLLOWING DEFINITION: “A machine or piece of equipment which has been invented for a particular purpose.”
10. GIVE A QUESTION FOR THE UNDERLINED WORDS: “Some health professionals point out that many cancers take at least ten years to develop”.
11. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE WITHOUT CHANGING ITS MEANING. BEGIN AS INDICATED: “Even though the car was very expensive, she bought it”. In spite of…
12. FILL IN THE GAP WITH THE CORRECT FORM OF THE VERB IN BRACKETS. “George stopped ……. (smoke) two years ago.”
13. TURN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE INTO THE PASSIVE VOICE: Scientists believe that mobile phones are dangerous to our health.

III * PRODUCTION (3 points)
14. WRITE A COMPOSITION OF APPROXIMATELY 120 WORDS ABOUT THE PROPOSED TOPIC AND FOCUS STRICTLY ON IT:

Computers, mobile phones, game consoles..., what is your favourite technological device? Why?










domingo, 2 de febrero de 2014

DESCRIPCIÓN DEL EXAMEN B1-B2 EN INGLES – PARTE 4

PARTE 4

Producción oral



Consiste en una entrevista individual de una duración de 7 a 10 minutos.
La prueba consta de tres partes:
  • Preguntas sobre la vida cotidiana (B1)
  • Descripción de una foto y preguntas generales sobre temas relacionadas con la foto (B1/B2)
  • El candidato debe dar su opinión acerca de un tema proporcionado por el examinador (B2)
Criterios de evaluación:
Siguiendo las recomendaciones del Marco Común Europeo de Referencia (MCER) se tendrán en cuenta los siguientes criterios;
  • Alcance
  • Corrección
  • Fluidez
  • Interacción
  • Coherencia
El MCER define las competencias lingüísticas generales del usuario en la producción oral en los siguientes términos:

B1  - Dispone de suficientes elementos lingüísticos como para desenvolverse y de suficiente vocabulario como para expresarse con algunas dudas y circunloquios sobre temas como la familia, aficiones y intereses, trabajo, viajes y hechos de actualidad, pero las limitaciones léxicas provocan repeticiones e incluso, a veces, dificultades en la formulación.

B2  - Se expresa con claridad y sin manifestar ostensiblemente que tenga que limitar lo que quiere decir. Dispone de suficientes elementos lingüísticos como para hacer descripciones claras, expresar puntos de vista y desarrollar argumentos, utilizando para ello algunas oraciones complejas y sin que se le note mucho que está buscando las palabras que necesita.


EJEMPLO DE LA SEGUNDA PARTE DE LA PRUEBA ORAL:










Referencia: http://www.clm-granada.com/

DESCRIPCIÓN DEL EXAMEN B1-B2 EN INGLES – PARTE 3


PARTE 3
Producción escrita (60 minutos)



Consiste en la redacción de 2 textos de distinta tipología (por ejemplo, carta informal/formal, correo electrónico informal/formal, blog, artículo, informe, ensayo, narración, mensaje o nota).
El primer texto evalúa el nivel B1 y tendrá una longitud de entre 150 y 200 palabras. El segundo texto evalúa el nivel B2 y tendrá una longitud de entre 250 y 300 palabras.
Criterios de evaluación:
Siguiendo las recomendaciones del Marco Común Europeo de Referencia (MCER) se tendrán en cuenta los siguientes criterios;
  • Adecuación a la tarea
  • Cohesión y coherencia
  • Alcance y Control Gramatical
  • Alcance y Control de Vocabulario
El MCER define las competencias lingüísticas generales del usuario en la producción escrita en los siguientes términos:

B1 – Es capaz de producir textos sencillos y coherentes sobre temas que le son familiares o en los que tiene un interés personal.

B2 - Puede producir textos claros y detallados sobre temas diversos, así como defender un punto de vista sobre temas generales, indicando los pros y los contras de las distintas opciones.

EJEMPLO 1: Correo electrónico informal (Nivel B1)

Read this email from an English friend.
Hi,
Just a quick note to say hello. Why haven't you written? Everything here is fine. I've just finished my exams and they went well. I'm going to have a short holiday to relax and see friends before starting to look for a job. What about you? What have you been doing? What's happening there at the moment? What plans have you got for the next few months? Sorry about all the questions but you shouldn't be so lazy! Write to me and tell me everything or I won't write again!!
Chris xxx 


Write a reply. You MUST include the following:
  • Explain why you haven’t written before
  • Mention what you are doing at the moment
  • Describe your future plans
Write between 150-200 words.








Referencia: http://www.clm-granada.com/

DESCRIPCIÓN DEL EXAMEN B1- B2 DE INGLÉS - PARTE 2


PARTE 2
Comprensión auditiva (aproximadamente 45 minutos)



Esta parte consta de 4 a 6 textos grabados de diferente tipología (por ejemplo, textos narrativos, descriptivos, de opinión, biográficos, de conversación; pueden ser de tipo formal, informal o académico). Hay un mínimo de 2 grabaciones de nivel B1 y 2 grabaciones de nivel B2. Cada grabación se escucha dos veces.
Habrá aproximadamente unos 40 ítems en total de los niveles del MCER B1 y B2.

Los ítems pueden ser de diferentes tipos:
a.     Ítem de respuesta alternativa o respuesta múltiple. El candidato debe elegir una respuesta correcta  de entre cuatro opciones. En todos los casos, sólo una es correcta, mientras que las demás son distractores, es decir, respuestas no correctas.
b.     Ítem de relacionar o emparejar. El candidato debe relacionar enunciados con las distintas partes de la audición.
c.     Ítem de respuesta corta con un máximo de CUATRO palabras. La respuesta se considera equivocada si excede de cuatro palabras. Las contracciones e. j., doesn’t se cuenta como una palabra. No es necesario escribir frases completas.
EJEMPLO de ítem de respuesta alternativa o respuesta múltiple (Nivel B1)

Listen to Sandra talking about when her parents emigrated to the USA. First you have 1 minute to study the questions. Then you will hear the recording twice. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for the questions (1-6). There is an example (0) at the beginning.

At the end of the second recording, you will have 1 minute to finalise your answers. Start studying the questions
now.

EMIGRATING TO THE USA


Listen to the Recording: 


0
Sandra's parents emigrated to the USA to ________

A join their family
B improve the way they lived
C get married
D escape persecution
Q1
In Italy it was only possible for Sandra's father to ________

A find temporary work
B get a job in a shop
C find work in a factory
D get an agricultural job
Q2
At first, life in the USA was difficult for them because ________

A they couldn't find a place to live
B her father couldn't find a job
C nothing was the same
D people were unfriendly
Q3
When Italian immigrants arrived in New York they ________

A were helped by the American government
B got help from people of their own nationality
C had to stay on the boat for a week
D lived in a neighbourhood with other nationalities
Q4
Sandra's father ________

A found work in the clothes industry
B started working in a car factory
C took a long time to find a job
D got a job immediately
Q5
Immigrants' wives ________

A weren't usually allowed to work
B couldn't usually find jobs
C normally worked with children
D normally stayed at home
Q6
Sandra's mother ________

A didn't mind the weather in New York
B couldn't do her shopping
C had problems communicating
D liked speaking English

 

CLAVE DE TODAS LAS POSIBLES RESPUESTAS. Emigrating to THE USA


0
Sandra's parents emigrated to the USA to ________
B
Q1
In Italy it was only possible for Sandra's father to ________
D
Q2
At first, life in the USA was difficult for them because ________
C
Q3
When Italian immigrants arrived in New York they ________
B
Q4
Sandra's father ________
A
Q5
Immigrants' wives ________
D
Q6
Sandra's mother ________
C

EJEMPLO de ítem de relacionar o emparejar (Nivel B1)

Listen to Helen answering some questions about food and diet. Choose the correct answer (1-7) for each question (A-I).  There is one extra question that you do not need to use.  There is an example (0) at the beginning.

At the end of the second recording, you will have 1 minute to finalise your answers. Start studying the questions now.
  

FOOD AND DIET INTERVIEW


Listen to the Recording: 


QUESTION......?
A   What’s your favourite food?
B   Is there any food that you hate?
C   Do you like cooking?
D   How often do you eat out?
E   Are there any good restaurants near where you live?
F   What’s the worst meal you’ve ever had?
G   Do you think you have a healthy diet?
H    Do you put weight on easily?
I   Have you tried any special food when travelling?
Answer
0
B
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7

CLAVE DE TODAS LAS POSIBLES RESPUESTAS. Foof and Diet Interview.

0
B
Q1
I
Q2
D
Q3
E
Q4
A
Q5
C
Q6
H
Q7
G









Referencia: http://www.clm-granada.com/

DESCRIPCIÓN DEL EXAMEN B1- B2 DE INGLÉS - PARTE 1


El examen para la acreditación de los niveles B1 y B2 en inglés consta de CUATRO PARTES, diseñadas para evaluar distintos aspectos de la competencia lingüística: la compresión lectora, la comprensión auditiva, la producción escrita y la producción oral. Para conseguir la acreditación en cualquier nivel, hay que aprobar las cuatro destrezas.

PARTE 1
Comprensión lectora (aproximadamente 75 minutos)



Esta parte consta de 4 a 6 textos de diferente tipología (por ejemplo, textos narrativos, descriptivos, de opinión, informativos, etc.). Hay un mínimo de 2 textos de nivel B1 y 2 textos de nivel B2.
Habrá aproximadamente unos 40 ítems en total de los niveles del MCER (Marco Común Europeo de Referencia) B1 y B2.
Los ítems pueden ser de diferentes tipos:

a.     Ítem de respuesta alternativa o respuesta múltiple. El candidato debe elegir una respuesta correcta de entre cuatro opciones. En todos los casos, sólo una es correcta, mientras que las demás son distractores, es decir, respuestas no correctas.
b.     Ítem de reintegración de un fragmento a un texto. El candidato debe insertar en su ubicación original una palabra o un fragmento de texto que previamente se ha extraído del mismo. Puede haber fragmentos que no corresponden al texto y que actúan como distractores.
c.     Ítem de relacionar o emparejar. El candidato debe relacionar uno a uno los elementos de dos listas formadas una por textos cortos o fragmentos de un texto más largo, y la otra por un texto corto o un enunciado.
d.     Ítem de respuesta corta con un máximo de CUATRO palabras. La respuesta se considera equivocada si excede de cuatro palabras. Las contracciones, por ejemplo, doesn’t se cuentan como una palabra. No es necesario escribir frases completas.

EJEMPLO de ítem de respuesta corta con un máximo de cuatro palabras (Nivel B1)

Read the news article below about the drink Ribena. Then answer questions 1-9 in a maximum of FOUR words. The first question (0) has been done as an example.

Ribena fined over misleading advertising
The makers of blackcurrant-flavoured drink Ribena, GlaxoSmithKline, are in a New Zealand court today after it was discovered that the company's 55-year advertising campaign is misleading to consumers. Ribena had promoted the drink as being rich in vitamin C, with four times as much as oranges, and claimed the "Ready to Drink" Ribena had 7mg of vitamin C per 100ml. Tests have shown that "Ready to Drink" Ribena does not have any detectable vitamin C content.

GlaxoSmithKline (GSK), an international leading healthcare company second only to Pfizer, pleaded guilty to all 15 charges laid against them by New Zealand's Commerce Commission in Auckland's District Court. GSK did, however, fight the expected fine of up to $350,000 and corrective advertisements, proposing instead a $60,000 fine with no corrective advertisements. In the end, they were fined $217,000 for their breaches of New Zealand's fair trading act, and will have to publish correcting advertisements.

It was first revealed that Ribena did not contain any traces of vitamin C when two 14-year-old Pakuranka College students did tests. At first Anna Devathasan and Jenny Suo thought they had conducted their tests incorrectly, so they tried again, but the same result came up. They contacted the firm three times, and approached the Commerce Commission after receiving no response.

Ms Devathasan said, "We did the study for a bit of fun."

A study in January 2007 also revealed that the drink contains only 5% actual blackcurrant juice.

(Text taken from Wikinews)

0
How old is Ribena’s publicity?
55 years old
Q1
How much Vitamin C does “Ready to Drink” Ribena contain?

Q2
What is GlaxoSmithKline?

Q3
How much must GlaxoSmithKline pay?

Q4
What other action must GlaxoSmithKline take?

Q5
Who discovered Ribena’s vitamin C problem?

Q6
What did Anna and Jenny originally think they had done?

Q7
What did Anna and Jenny try to do after they finished their experiments?

Q8
Why did Anna and Jenny contact the Commerce Committee?

Q9
Why had Anna and Jenny originally done the tests?


CLAVE DE TODAS LAS POSIBLES RESPUESTAS

0
How old is Ribena’s publicity?
55 years old
Q1
How much Vitamin C does “Ready to Drink” Ribena contain?
None.
Not any.
Nothing.
Zero.
No.
Nought.
Q2
What is GlaxoSmithKline?
Health company/firm/business.
Health products company/firm/business.
Healthcare company/firm/business.
Q3
How much must GlaxoSmithKline pay?
$217,000.
217,000 dollars.
Q4
What other action must GlaxoSmithKline take?
Publish correcting advertisements.
Publish corrective adverts.
Publish correct ads.
Show correcting advertisements.
Show corrective ads.
Show correct adverts.
Q5
Who discovered Ribena’s vitamin C problem?
Two students.
Two college students.
Q6
What did Anna and Jenny originally think they had done?
Made a mistake/error.
Make a mistake/error.
Q7
What did Anna and Jenny try to do after they finished their experiments?
Contact GSK.
Contact company.
Contact the company.
Contact the firm.
Contact firm.
Q8
Why did Anna and Jenny contact the Commerce Committee?
1. (They received/got ) no reply/response/answer
2. Company/firm/business/gsk
didn’t reply/respond/answer
3. No reply/ response / answer from company
Q9
Why had Anna and Jenny originally done the tests?
For fun

EJEMPLO de ítem de relacionar o emparejar (Nivel B1)


Read the text about tea. Match the headings (1-8) in the table with the facts about tea (A-M). There are four facts which youdo not need to use. There is an example (0) at the beginning.

FACTS ABOUT TEA THAT EVERYBODY SHOULD KNOW

A Tea break time...
Tea breaks are a tradition that has been with us for approximately 200 years.
B Drink your way to the top...
80% of office workers now claim they find out more about what's going on at work over a cup of tea than in any other way.
C Everyone's favourite...
By the middle of the 18th Century tea had replaced ale* and gin as the drink of the masses and had become Britain's most popular beverage*.
D Good for you...
Tea contains half the amount of caffeine found in coffee.
E How many cups a day...
The number of recommended cups of tea to drink each day is 4, this gives you optimal benefit.
F A long time ago...
Tea was created more than 5000 years ago in China.
G A cup of tea to keep the dentist away...
Tea is a natural source of fluoride that can help protect against tooth decay and gum disease
H The first book...
The first book about tea was written by Lu Yu in 800 A.D
I Arrived in Europe...
Tea first appeared in Europe thanks to Portuguese Jesuit Father Jasper de Cruz in 1560.
J And the doctor away...
Tea has potential health maintenance benefits in cardiovascular disease and cancer prevention.
K Bag it up...
96% of all cups of tea drunk daily in the UK are brewed from tea bags.
L Big in India...
Apart from tourism, tea is the biggest industrial activity in India.
M As you like it...
98% of people take their tea with milk, but only 30% take sugar in tea.
(www.tea.co.uk)
GLOSSARY
ale = beer
beverage = drink

0
Read about it
H
Q1
Providing jobs

Q2
The right amount to drink

Q3
Choosing how to drink your tea

Q4
Discover what's happening where you work

Q5
Time to stop for a drink

Q6
Comparing tea with another drink

Q7
When tea was first imported

Q8
Tastes have changed


CLAVE DE TODAS LAS POSIBLES RESPUESTAS

0
Read about it
H
Q1
Providing jobs
L
Q2
The right amount to drink
E
Q3
Choosing how to drink your tea
M
Q4
Discover what's happening where you work
B
Q5
Time to stop for a drink
A
Q6
Comparing tea with another drink
D
Q7
When tea was first imported
I
Q8
Tastes have changed
C









Referencia: http://www.clm-granada.com/